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Tort Question - Product liability. Pls help!!!?


Is it correct to say that a manufacturer or seller can sell a product which is as defective as he likes so long as no damage to the person or property is caused to the plaintiff?

The manufacturer is probably free from action in Tort law. The possession of the product has caused him no harm.
Unless: There is secondary harm such as the buyer might run a concession stand at a fair and he lost a whole days takings because his basic equipment didn't work.

Also, in Contract law the manufacturer might be liable for breach of contract as the name on the box said "deep fryer" or "air conditioner" "rodent killer" and the unsaid but still implied clause in the contract was not honoured. ie the product did not fry, ventilate or kill.

You just made no sense, maybe you need to learn what some of these big boy words mean before you sporadically interject them into sentences to create the illusion that you are intelligent, when, in reality, you seem to be far from it.

Product Liability deals with defects which cause damage. Warranties, both express and implied, deal with defects in the product effecting its usability. Your scenario indicates a warranty issue, not a product liability issue.

no it is not right they should not be able to do so all products that are legally sold are tested by government watched test sites they say if product is what it sayit is. Safety is number one> if yousay bought it out of walmart, shopko, costco, a hundred lawyers would and will jump to sue for you

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