Is it consistent to have enforceable property rights but not labor standards?

Free trade agreements commonly include enforceable intellectual property rights but not labor standards.

Please give reason to support answer.

Very inconsistent.

That was one of the major issues and problems Ross Perot had with NAFTA when he was running for president in 92 and why I voted for him.

Perot said that free trade isn't bad BUT it will only cause massive job loss in the USA if we do not stipulate that the countries we are trading freely with must have labor laws and standards, as well as, obey certain environmental regulations.

When you allow companies to underpay and abuse workers... sweatshops, child labor, etc... there is no way the USA can compete. The end result is America losing.

Also, supporters of NAFTA, GATT, WTO, etc... all promised we would see prices go down, etc... this has not been the case. Corporations have shown us now that they will just pocket the profits that are gaining from low labor standards.

And you are right. They sure are DEMANDING their copywrits be protected, etc... = a double standard. They don't care about humanity or American jobs, only money.

If another country cannot violate your intellectual property why do you care how they produce their goods. Or are you referring to when a company send their manufacturing overseas?

Free trade agreements must also observe labor standards so that member countries can have standard salaries for workers in order to have the same prices for products. Countries with low minimum wage must be raised to have standard living opportunities for workers.

They're mutually exclusive. The stance on both promotes more products being traded. Seems pretty consistent to me.

Edit: Hey fragi! The opposite is true, too! Take away the minimum here and prices might drop to a competitive level...duh. Try looking at the mechanics of a free market!