In my final decree of divorce my ex wife was awarded the car. There was still an outstanding loan on it and?

I continued to pay on it. According to the decree, the car was to become hers in 2007. However, there was still an outstanding loan on the car. She had possesion of the car since the divorce while I paid. In the beginning of this year, I was unable to make payments on the car anymore. I informed her of this, and she willing sold the car and purchaced a new one. which she totalled in less then a week.

Now, she is saying that I am in breach of contract since I did not put the car in her name in 2007. I was unable to transfer the loan to her since she was also unable to afford the payments. Since the loan was in my name, the car was as well. She now states I owe her a car. I allowed her to profit from the sale of the car as I knew it was the only way she would let me out of the loan, but she is correct, I was supposed to sign the car over to her. Do I owe her a car now? Am I really in breach? I didn't know what to do when I wasn't able to make the payments anymore.

Get a lawyer.

This just proves, no good deed goes unpunished. You should have given her the car and let it get repo'd. Unless a judge orders otherwise tho, tell her to shove it. It owe her zip.

You should have gone back to your divorce atty. from the beginning of this situation and asked him/her what to do. This said, I do not think you "owe" your ex-wife anything more.

talk to your divorce attorney, but you are probably free and clear on the basis that she was made whole by purchasing a new car in her own name with the proceeds of the sale of the old one.

what she did with the new car after that is her own business.

I suppose this is a prime example of why she is an EX-wife. Sounds like a b*tch. You did something nice for her, and she still wants more. I'd get a lawyer (again) to settle this. She sounds like a gold digging whore.

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I would do nothing. Worse case she takes you to court and they make you buy her a car. But I doubt it, She used her free will to sell that car and buy another.. then she wrecked it.

The car she wrecked was a substitute. By selling the orignal car, she got the benefit

As I understand this, you cooperated in selling the first car, paid off the loan on the first car and gave her the left over proceeds to go buy another one.

The question is--what did the court order you to do about the loan when you were ordered to give her the car? If you were supposed to pay off the loan and give her the title free and clear, then you still owe her some money. It would be the amount of the insurance proceeds used to pay off the loan that should have gone to her to buy her new car.

On the other hand, if you were ordered to transfer title to the car and she was ordered to make the payments from then on, you wouldn't owe her anything now.

Better take your divorce decree back to a lawyer and ask some questions.

Didn't she have insurance for the new car?

Seems to me that she willing sold the car, so at that point you are done with the obligation. It shouldn't matter that you didn't put it in her name. She should've said something back then. She drove it around while you could make payments, so to me the intent of the decree was met.

Talk to your lawyer and have them sort it out, but there is NO way you owe her a car.

If the judge order the car to her, she was responsible for the loan just as well as the car,
You owe her NOTHING!!!!
Why does she think that since she totaled the car that YOU owe her it.
Tell her to take you to court for contempt, then if she does and goes to court show the judge that you made attempt to get the car signed over to her and the finance company would not approve her.
If nothing happens-than nothing to worry bout

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If she got a new car and was totaled by her that has nothing to do with you.